DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the correct DoD Policy Series at their appropriate places.

Solution:
The various DoD policy series are as follows:


Does this meet the goal?

Correct Answer:A

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against .

Correct Answer:B
Removing the IPP printing capability from a server is a good countermeasure against an IIS buffer overflow attack. A Network Administrator should take the following steps to prevent a Web server from IIS buffer overflow attacks: Conduct frequent scans for server vulnerabilities. Install the upgrades of Microsoft service packs.
Implement effective firewalls. Apply URLScan and IISLockdown utilities. Remove the IPP printing capability. Answer D is incorrect. The following are the DNS zone transfer countermeasures: Do not allow DNS zone transfer using the DNS property sheet: a.Open DNS. b.Right-click a DNS zone and click Properties. c.On the Zone Transfer tab, clear the Allow zone transfers check box. Configure the master DNS server to allow zone transfers only from secondary DNS servers: a.Open DNS. b.Right-click a DNS zone and click Properties. c.On the zone transfer tab, select the Allow zone transfers check box, and then do one of the following: To allow zone transfers only to the DNS servers listed on the name servers tab, click on the Only to the servers listed on the Name Server tab. To allow zone transfers only to specific DNS servers, click Only to the following servers, and add the IP address of one or more servers. Deny all unauthorized inbound connections to TCP port 53. Implement DNS keys and encrypted DNS payloads. Answer A is incorrect. The following are the countermeasures against SNMP enumeration: 1.Removing the SNMP agent or disabling the SNMP service 2.Changing the default PUBLIC community name when 'shutting off SNMP' is not an option 3.Implementing the Group Policy security option called Additional restrictions for anonymous connections 4.Restricting access to NULL session pipes and NULL session shares 5.Upgrading SNMP Version 1 with the latest version 6.Implementing Access control list filtering to allow only access to the read-write community from approved stations or subnets Answer B is incorrect. NetBIOS NULL session vulnerabilities are hard to prevent, especially if NetBIOS is needed as part of the infrastructure. One or more of the following steps can be taken to limit NetBIOS NULL session vulnerabilities: 1.Null sessions require access to the TCP 139 or TCP 445 port, which can be disabled by a Network Administrator. 2.A Network Administrator can also disable SMB services entirely on individual hosts by unbinding WINS Client TCP/IP from the interface. 3.A Network Administrator can also restrict the anonymous user by editing the registry values: a.Open regedit32, and go to HKLM\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\LSA. b.Choose edit > add value. Value name: RestrictAnonymous Data Type: REG_WORD Value: 2

Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes?

Correct Answer:D
Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes. Answer A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.

Which of the following is an example of over-the-air (OTA) provisioning in digital rights management?

Correct Answer:A
Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Over-the-air provisioning is required for end-to-end encryption or other security purposes in order to deliver copyrighted software to a mobile device. For example, use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. Answer D and C are incorrect. The use of device properties for unique identification and the use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks are the security challenges in digital rights management (DRM). Answer B is incorrect. The use of software and hardware to meet the deployment goals is a distracter.

Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe. What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?

Correct Answer:D
This is an example of transference. When the risk is transferred to a third party, usually for a fee, it creates a contractual-relationship for the third party to manage the risk on behalf of the performing organization. Risk response planning is a method of developing options to decrease the amount of threats and make the most of opportunities. The risk response should be aligned with the consequence of the risk and cost- effectiveness. This planning documents the processes for managing risk events. It addresses the owners and their responsibilities, risk identification, results from qualification and quantification processes, budgets and times for responses, and contingency plans. The various risk response planning techniques are as follows: Risk acceptance: It indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. Risk avoidance: It is a technique for a threat, which creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk or to protect the project objectives from this impact. Risk mitigation: It is a list of specific actions being taken to deal with specific risks associated with the threats and seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of risk below an acceptable threshold. Risk transference: It is used to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the ownership of the response.

Which of the following is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website?

Correct Answer:D
CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding. CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution. Answer A is incorrect. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client-side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, depending on the sensitivity of the data handled by the vulnerable site, and the nature of any security mitigations implemented by the site owner. Answer C is incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks require considerable technical knowledge of the internal operation of the system on which the cryptography is implemented. Answer B is incorrect. Injection flaws are the vulnerabilities where a foreign agent illegally uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker's hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.