Given the code snippet below:

Which of the following vulnerability types in the MOST concerning?

Correct Answer:B

A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following
should the CSO conduct FIRST?

Correct Answer:A
Security posture refers to the overall security plan from planning through to implementation and comprises technical and non-technical policies, procedures and controls to protect from both internal and external threats. From a security standpoint, one of the first questions that must be answered in improving the overall security posture of an organization is to identify where data
resides. All the advances that were made by technology make this very difficult. The best way then to improve your company’s security posture is to first survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Purchasing multiple threat feeds will provide better security posture, but the first step is still to survey threats from services within the same industry.
C: Conducting an internal audit is not the first step in improving security posture of your company. D: Deploying a UTM solution to get frequent updates is not the first step to take when tasked with the job of improving security posture.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 99

A security manager looked at various logs while investigating a recent security breach in the data center from an external source. Each log below was collected from various security devices compiled from a report through the company’s security information and event management server.
Logs: Log 1:
Feb 5 23:55:37.743: %SEC-6-IPACCESSLOGS: list 10 denied 10.2.5.81 3 packets
Log 2: HTTP://www.company.com/index.php?user=aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
Log 3:
Security Error Alert
Event ID 50: The RDP protocol component X.224 detected an error in the protocol stream and has disconnected the client
Log 4:
Encoder oe = new OracleEncoder ();
String query = “Select user_id FROM user_data WHERE user_name = ‘ ”
+ oe.encode ( req.getParameter(“userID”) ) + “ ‘ and user_password = ‘ “
+ oe.encode ( req.getParameter(“pwd”) ) +” ‘ “; Vulnerabilities
Buffer overflow SQL injection ACL
XSS
Which of the following logs and vulnerabilities would MOST likely be related to the security breach? (Select TWO).

Correct Answer:BE
Log 2 indicates that the security breach originated from an external source. And the vulnerability that can be associated with this security breach is a buffer overflow that happened when the amount of data written into the buffer exceeded the limit of that particular buffer.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Log 1 is not indicative of a security breach from an outside source
C: Log 3 will not be displayed if the breach in security came from an outside source. D: Log 4 does not indicate an outside source responsible for the security breach.
F: The access control lists are mainly used to configure firewall rules and is thus not related to the security breach.
G: XSS would be indicative of an application issue and not a security breach that originated from the outside.
H: A SQL Injection is a type of attack that makes use of a series of malicious SQL queries in an attempt to directly manipulates the SQL database. This is not necessarily a security breach that originated from the outside.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 110-112, 151. 153, 162

The risk manager has requested a security solution that is centrally managed, can easily be updated, and protects end users' workstations from both known and unknown malicious attacks when connected to either the office or home network. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

Correct Answer:A
In this question, we need to protect the workstations when connected to either the office or home network. Therefore, we need a solution that stays with the workstation when the user takes the computer home.
A HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System) is software installed on a host which monitors the host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host with the aim of detecting and preventing intrusion.
Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), also known as intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS), are network security appliances that monitor network and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it.
Intrusion prevention systems are considered extensions of intrusion detection systems because they both monitor network traffic and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main differences are, unlike intrusion detection systems, intrusion prevention systems are placed in-line and are able to actively prevent/block intrusions that are detected. More specifically, IPS can take such actions as sending an alarm, dropping the malicious packets, resetting the connection and/or blocking the traffic from the offending IP address.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Unified threat management (UTM) is a primary network gateway defense solution for organizations. In theory, UTM is the evolution of the traditional firewall into an all-inclusive security product able to perform multiple security functions within one single system: network firewalling, network intrusion prevention and gateway antivirus (AV), gateway anti-spam, VPN, content filtering, load balancing, data loss prevention and on-appliance reporting. However, UTM is designed to protect a network; it will not protect the user’s workstations when connected to their home
networks as required in this question.
C: Antivirus software will protect against attacks aided by known viruses. However, it will not protect against unknown attacks as required in this question.
D: NIPS stands for Network Intrusion Prevention Systems. A NIPS is designed to protect a network; it will not protect the user’s workstations when connected to their home networks as required in this question.
E: Data loss prevention (DLP) is a strategy for making sure that end users do not send sensitive or critical information outside the corporate network. DLP does not protect against malicious attacks. References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wHYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_prevention_system"iki/Intrusion_prevention_system

A security architect is determining the best solution for a new project. The project is developing a new intranet with advanced authentication capabilities, SSO for users, and automated provisioning to streamline Day 1 access to systems. The security architect has identified the following requirements:
1. Information should be sourced from the trusted master data source.
2. There must be future requirements for identity proofing of devices and users.
3. A generic identity connector that can be reused must be developed.
4. The current project scope is for internally hosted applications only.
Which of the following solution building blocks should the security architect use to BEST meet the requirements?

Correct Answer:A

Which of the following is a feature of virtualization that can potentially create a single point of failure?

Correct Answer:A